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HW-604 Management MCQ 26-50
26) Typically, ________ gains the most benefit from introducing a frequency program.
A) the fast follower, who is second to introduce a frequency program in an industry,
B) the first company to introduce a frequency program in an industry
C) the industry sales leader
D) the low-cost leader in the industry
E) the niche player in the industry
27) A ________ would contain such items as past volumes, prices, profits, buyer,
status of current contacts, and an assessment of competitive strengths and
weaknesses.
A) contact list
B) customer mailing list
C) general corporate database
D) business database
E) customer database
28) Using his company’s ________ allows a telemarketer to respond to customer
inquiries more effectively because he or she can see a total picture of the
customer relationship.
A) data warehouse
B) corporate database
C) call back list
D) call rejection list
E) Better Business Bureau contacts
29)All of the following are examples of the perils of CRM EXCEPT ________.
A) implementing CRM before creating a customer strategy
B) assuming more CRM technology is better
C) stalking, not wooing, customers
D) the enormous cost that might eventually drain significant profits from the
organization
E) rolling out CRM before changing the organization to match
30) People choose products that reflect and communicate their role and actual or
desired ________ in society.
A) attitudes
B) group
C) beliefs
D) feelings
E) status
31)________ portrays the “whole person” interacting with his or her environment.
A) Subculture
B) Attitude
C) Reference group
D) Lifestyle
E) Culture
32) Anne prefers Yoplait strawberry yogurt over other brands. When she decides
to try a different flavor, she picks another Yoplait yogurt because she believes
that, if the strawberry flavor is good, other Yoplait flavors must be good as
well. This behavior is best described as ________.
A) generalization
B) heuristic thinking
C) discrimination
D) associative networking
E) self-actualization
33)Marketers who target consumers on the basis of their ________ believe that,
with appeals to people’s inner selves, they can influence purchase behavior.
A) sophistication
B) time famine
C) core values
D) social class
E) opinions
34)________ can work to the advantage of marketers with strong brands when
consumers make neutral or ambiguous brand information more positive.
A) Selective distortion
B) Selective choice
C) Selective attention
D) Selective embellishment
E) Selective retention
35) Ultimately, the amount of steel sold to General Motors depends on the consumer’s
demand for GM cars and trucks. From the standpoint of the steel
manufacturer, which of the following demand forms is most pertinent?
A) Inelastic demand
B) Static demand
C) Relational demand
D) Derived demand
E) Geographic demand
36) In order to successfully develop customer reference stories, fi rms should
________.
A) use very few direct customer quotes
B) state the customer’s needs in compelling terms
C) describe the company’s solution in terms of products and services
D) avoid referencing the barriers to satisfying customer needs
E) focus on qualitative results
37) Xerox offers a ________ approach to prospective clients when it offers a complete
turnkey solution, including the operation and management of the client’s
information and communication need.
A) direct buying
B) supply buying
C) primary buying
D) systems buying
E) co-op buying system
38) Using the ________ form of solution selling, W.W. Grainger employees work at
large customer facilities to reduce materials-management costs.
A) solutions to reduce customer costs
B) solutions to decrease customer risks
C) solutions to alter corporate culture
D) solutions to enhance customer revenues
E) solutions to partnerships
39) The closest relationships between customers and suppliers arise when
________.
A) there are many undifferentiated vendors in the marketplace
B) supply is important to the customer
C) procurement is simple
D) the customer is highly price sensitive
E) all of the above
40) The argument for ________ marketing is that it creates the largest potential
market, which leads to the lowest costs, which in turn can lead to lower prices
or higher margins.
A) differentiated
B) macro
C) mass
D) niche
E) micro
41)A ________ consists of two parts: a naked solution and discretionary options.
A) flexible market offering
B) differentiated market offering
C) vertical market offering
D) rigid market offering
E) horizontal market offering
42) Rock band Foo Fighters created a digital street team that sends targeted
e-mail messages to members who receive exclusive news, previews, and opportunities
to win prizes. The Foo Fighters are using ________ to reach Generation
Y.
A) online buzz
B) computer games
C) unconventional sports
D) cool events
E) student ambassadors
43) A company can be said to have used ________ if the company distinguished
among customers buying on the basis of price, service, and quality.
A) global segmentation
B) microsegmentation
C) strategic segmentation
D) macrosegmentation
E) short-term segmentation
44) During which step of the segmentation process would the marketer group
customers into segments based on similar needs and benefits sought by the
customer in solving a particular consumption problem?
A) Step 6 segment “acid test”
B) Step 2 segment identification
C) Step 7 marketing-mix strategy
D) Step 1 needs-based segmentation
E) Step 3 segment attractiveness
45) Three pillars that point to the brand’s future value, rather than just reflecting
its past, are differentiation, energy, and relevance. Differentiation, energy, and
relevance combine to determine what is called brand ________.
A) strength
B) image
C) depth
D) knowledge
E) position
46) According to the BRANDZ model of brand strength, brand building involves
a sequential series of steps. Which of these steps would address or answer the
question “Do I know about it?”
A) relevance
B) advantage
C) bonding
D) presence
E) performance
47) All of the following are considered to be among the “six brand building
blocks” EXCEPT ________.
A) brand performance
B) brand pride
C) brand feelings
D) brand imagery
E) brand salience
48) Brand names are not the only important brand element. Often, ________, the
more important it is that brand elements capture the brand’s intangible characteristics.
A) the less concrete brand benefits are
B) the more concrete brand benefits are
C) the more varied brand perceptions are
D) the more sophisticated brand benefits are
E) the less varied brand perceptions are
49) Marketers of Mountain Dew created the multi-city Dew Action Sports Tour
where athletes compete in skateboarding, MBX, and freestyle motocross
events to establish a meaningful ________ with its 12-24-year-old target market.
A) brand asset
B) internal brand
C) brand salience
D) brand element
E) brand contact
50) To achieve a point-of-parity (POP) on a particular attribute or benefit, a sufficient number of consumers must believe that the brand is “________” on
that dimension.
A) good enough
B) neutral
C) marginal
D) most excellent
E) service based
Answer will be sent by email as attachment
A) the fast follower, who is second to introduce a frequency program in an industry,
B) the first company to introduce a frequency program in an industry
C) the industry sales leader
D) the low-cost leader in the industry
E) the niche player in the industry
27) A ________ would contain such items as past volumes, prices, profits, buyer,
status of current contacts, and an assessment of competitive strengths and
weaknesses.
A) contact list
B) customer mailing list
C) general corporate database
D) business database
E) customer database
28) Using his company’s ________ allows a telemarketer to respond to customer
inquiries more effectively because he or she can see a total picture of the
customer relationship.
A) data warehouse
B) corporate database
C) call back list
D) call rejection list
E) Better Business Bureau contacts
29)All of the following are examples of the perils of CRM EXCEPT ________.
A) implementing CRM before creating a customer strategy
B) assuming more CRM technology is better
C) stalking, not wooing, customers
D) the enormous cost that might eventually drain significant profits from the
organization
E) rolling out CRM before changing the organization to match
30) People choose products that reflect and communicate their role and actual or
desired ________ in society.
A) attitudes
B) group
C) beliefs
D) feelings
E) status
31)________ portrays the “whole person” interacting with his or her environment.
A) Subculture
B) Attitude
C) Reference group
D) Lifestyle
E) Culture
32) Anne prefers Yoplait strawberry yogurt over other brands. When she decides
to try a different flavor, she picks another Yoplait yogurt because she believes
that, if the strawberry flavor is good, other Yoplait flavors must be good as
well. This behavior is best described as ________.
A) generalization
B) heuristic thinking
C) discrimination
D) associative networking
E) self-actualization
33)Marketers who target consumers on the basis of their ________ believe that,
with appeals to people’s inner selves, they can influence purchase behavior.
A) sophistication
B) time famine
C) core values
D) social class
E) opinions
34)________ can work to the advantage of marketers with strong brands when
consumers make neutral or ambiguous brand information more positive.
A) Selective distortion
B) Selective choice
C) Selective attention
D) Selective embellishment
E) Selective retention
35) Ultimately, the amount of steel sold to General Motors depends on the consumer’s
demand for GM cars and trucks. From the standpoint of the steel
manufacturer, which of the following demand forms is most pertinent?
A) Inelastic demand
B) Static demand
C) Relational demand
D) Derived demand
E) Geographic demand
36) In order to successfully develop customer reference stories, fi rms should
________.
A) use very few direct customer quotes
B) state the customer’s needs in compelling terms
C) describe the company’s solution in terms of products and services
D) avoid referencing the barriers to satisfying customer needs
E) focus on qualitative results
37) Xerox offers a ________ approach to prospective clients when it offers a complete
turnkey solution, including the operation and management of the client’s
information and communication need.
A) direct buying
B) supply buying
C) primary buying
D) systems buying
E) co-op buying system
38) Using the ________ form of solution selling, W.W. Grainger employees work at
large customer facilities to reduce materials-management costs.
A) solutions to reduce customer costs
B) solutions to decrease customer risks
C) solutions to alter corporate culture
D) solutions to enhance customer revenues
E) solutions to partnerships
39) The closest relationships between customers and suppliers arise when
________.
A) there are many undifferentiated vendors in the marketplace
B) supply is important to the customer
C) procurement is simple
D) the customer is highly price sensitive
E) all of the above
40) The argument for ________ marketing is that it creates the largest potential
market, which leads to the lowest costs, which in turn can lead to lower prices
or higher margins.
A) differentiated
B) macro
C) mass
D) niche
E) micro
41)A ________ consists of two parts: a naked solution and discretionary options.
A) flexible market offering
B) differentiated market offering
C) vertical market offering
D) rigid market offering
E) horizontal market offering
42) Rock band Foo Fighters created a digital street team that sends targeted
e-mail messages to members who receive exclusive news, previews, and opportunities
to win prizes. The Foo Fighters are using ________ to reach Generation
Y.
A) online buzz
B) computer games
C) unconventional sports
D) cool events
E) student ambassadors
43) A company can be said to have used ________ if the company distinguished
among customers buying on the basis of price, service, and quality.
A) global segmentation
B) microsegmentation
C) strategic segmentation
D) macrosegmentation
E) short-term segmentation
44) During which step of the segmentation process would the marketer group
customers into segments based on similar needs and benefits sought by the
customer in solving a particular consumption problem?
A) Step 6 segment “acid test”
B) Step 2 segment identification
C) Step 7 marketing-mix strategy
D) Step 1 needs-based segmentation
E) Step 3 segment attractiveness
45) Three pillars that point to the brand’s future value, rather than just reflecting
its past, are differentiation, energy, and relevance. Differentiation, energy, and
relevance combine to determine what is called brand ________.
A) strength
B) image
C) depth
D) knowledge
E) position
46) According to the BRANDZ model of brand strength, brand building involves
a sequential series of steps. Which of these steps would address or answer the
question “Do I know about it?”
A) relevance
B) advantage
C) bonding
D) presence
E) performance
47) All of the following are considered to be among the “six brand building
blocks” EXCEPT ________.
A) brand performance
B) brand pride
C) brand feelings
D) brand imagery
E) brand salience
48) Brand names are not the only important brand element. Often, ________, the
more important it is that brand elements capture the brand’s intangible characteristics.
A) the less concrete brand benefits are
B) the more concrete brand benefits are
C) the more varied brand perceptions are
D) the more sophisticated brand benefits are
E) the less varied brand perceptions are
49) Marketers of Mountain Dew created the multi-city Dew Action Sports Tour
where athletes compete in skateboarding, MBX, and freestyle motocross
events to establish a meaningful ________ with its 12-24-year-old target market.
A) brand asset
B) internal brand
C) brand salience
D) brand element
E) brand contact
50) To achieve a point-of-parity (POP) on a particular attribute or benefit, a sufficient number of consumers must believe that the brand is “________” on
that dimension.
A) good enough
B) neutral
C) marginal
D) most excellent
E) service based
Answer will be sent by email as attachment
